In those days shall be affliction, such as was not from the beginning of the creation which God created unto this time, neither shall be—the Greek thlipsis (θλῖψις, 'affliction/tribulation') describes intense pressure, distress. Jesus claimed this tribulation would be unparalleled in all history—hoia ou gegonen toiautē (οἵα οὐ γέγονεν τοιαύτη, 'such as has not occurred'). This echoes Daniel 12:1—'time of trouble, such as never was since there was a nation.'
Partial fulfillment occurred AD 70: Josephus recorded 1.1 million Jews killed, 97,000 enslaved, cannibalism, factional violence, temple destruction. Yet hyperbolic language ('such as never was') may point beyond AD 70 to final tribulation (Matthew 24:21 adds 'no, nor ever shall be,' suggesting ultimate fulfillment remains future). Prophetic texts often have dual reference—near historical fulfillment prefiguring far eschatological fulfillment. Christians debate whether 'great tribulation' is past (preterist view) or future (futurist view). Either way, Jesus warned of unprecedented suffering connected to His prophecy.
Historical Context
Josephus' 'Wars of the Jews' details Jerusalem's destruction (AD 66-70). Roman siege lasted five months. Factional violence within city killed thousands before Romans entered. Starvation drove cannibalism. Josephus estimated 1.1 million deaths, 97,000 enslaved. Titus razed temple, burned city. Survivors scattered. Jewish state ended until 1948. By any measure, catastrophic judgment. Yet world history includes comparable horrors: Black Death (25 million), Mongol invasions (40 million), World Wars (60+ million), Holocaust (6 million Jews). Does this contradict Jesus' 'such as never was'? Options:
hyperbole emphasizing severity
focus on Jewish people specifically
primary fulfillment future during final tribulation.
Futurist eschatology anticipates worse suffering before Christ's return.
Questions for Reflection
How can Jesus describe AD 70 as 'such as was not... neither shall be' when history includes comparable catastrophes?
Does this prophecy have dual fulfillment—near (AD 70) and far (future tribulation)—or single fulfillment, and why does it matter?
How should awareness of unprecedented suffering (past or future) affect Christian living—does it produce fear or faithful endurance?
Related Resources
Explore related topics, people, and study resources to deepen your understanding of this passage.
Analysis & Commentary
In those days shall be affliction, such as was not from the beginning of the creation which God created unto this time, neither shall be—the Greek thlipsis (θλῖψις, 'affliction/tribulation') describes intense pressure, distress. Jesus claimed this tribulation would be unparalleled in all history—hoia ou gegonen toiautē (οἵα οὐ γέγονεν τοιαύτη, 'such as has not occurred'). This echoes Daniel 12:1—'time of trouble, such as never was since there was a nation.'
Partial fulfillment occurred AD 70: Josephus recorded 1.1 million Jews killed, 97,000 enslaved, cannibalism, factional violence, temple destruction. Yet hyperbolic language ('such as never was') may point beyond AD 70 to final tribulation (Matthew 24:21 adds 'no, nor ever shall be,' suggesting ultimate fulfillment remains future). Prophetic texts often have dual reference—near historical fulfillment prefiguring far eschatological fulfillment. Christians debate whether 'great tribulation' is past (preterist view) or future (futurist view). Either way, Jesus warned of unprecedented suffering connected to His prophecy.